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Offline Robskiwarrior  
#1 Posted : Sunday, August 16, 2009 4:25:05 AM(UTC)
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NOTE: Dr. Michael Brown has a Ph.D in Semitic languages - which of course include Hebrew and Aramaic - the original languages of Jesus and His people. He is a recognized authority on this topic.

JESUS, YESHUA or YAHSHUA??
-by Dr. Michael L. Brown.

I am continually amazed by how many people write to our ministry and ask us questions like this one, which came in last week: “Some Christians say we have to use the Hebrew name, Yashua. They say calling on the name of Jesus is calling on Zeus. That Jesus is a disguise name for Satan. What answers do you have for this? Where can we prove the name of Jesus is correct to use in its English translation and pronunciation?”

As bizarre as these questions are, the fact that they keep coming up means that they need to be addressed, so here are some simple responses (for more details, see What Do Jewish People Think About Jesus, question #38).

The original Hebrew-Aramaic name of Jesus is yeshu‘a, which is short for yehoshu‘a (Joshua), just as Mike is short for Michael. The name yeshu‘a occurs 27 times in the Hebrew Scriptures, primarily referring to the high priest after the Babylonian exile, called both yehoshu‘a (see, e.g., Zechariah 3:3) and, more frequently, yeshu‘a (see, e.g., Ezra 3:2). So, Yeshua’s name was not unusual; in fact, as many as five different men had that name in the Old Testament. And this is how that name came to be “Jesus” in English: Simply stated, this is the etymological history of the name Jesus: Hebrew/Aramaic yeshu‘a became Greek Iesous, then Latin Iesus, passing into German and then, ultimately, into English, as Jesus.

Why then do some people refer to Jesus as Yahshua? There is absolutely no support for this pronunciation—none at all—and I say this as someone holding a Ph.D. in Semitic languages. My educated guess is that some zealous but linguistically ignorant people thought that Yahweh’s name must have been a more overt part of our Savior’s name, hence YAHshua rather than Yeshua— but again, there is no support of any kind for this theory.

The Hebrew Bible has yeshu‘a; when the Septuagint authors rendered this name in Greek, they rendered it as "iesous" (I­­esous, with no hint of yah at the beginning of the name); and the same can be said of the Peshitta translators when they rendered Yeshua’s name into Syriac (part of the Aramaic language family). All this is consistent and clear: The original form of the name Jesus is yeshu‘a, and there is no such name as yahshu‘a (or, yahushua or the like).

What about the alleged connection between the name Jesus (Greek I­­esous) and Zeus? This is one of the most ridiculous claims that has ever been made, but it has received more circulation in recent years (the Internet is an amazing tool of misinformation), and there are some believers who feel that it is not only preferable to use the original Hebrew/Aramaic name, Yeshua, but that it is wrong to use the name Jesus. Because of this, we will briefly examine this claim and expose the fallacies that underlie it.

According to the late A. B. Traina in his Holy Name Bible, “The name of the Son, Yahshua, has been substituted by Jesus, Iesus, and Ea-Zeus (Healing Zeus).”

In this one short sentence, two complete myths are stated as fact: First, there is no such name as Yahshua (as we have just explained), and second, there is no connection of any kind between the Greek name I­­esous (or the English name Jesus) and the name Zeus. Absolutely none! You might as well argue that Tiger Woods is the name of a tiger-infested jungle in India as try to connect the name Jesus to the pagan god Zeus. It is that absurd, and it is based on serious linguistic ignorance.

Here is another, equally absurd statement:

"... according to the ENCYCLOPEDIA BRITANNICA, the name Ieusus (Jesus) is a combination of 2 mythical deities, IEU and SUS (ZEUS, a Greek god)." - (www.wwyd.org).

The response to this statement (which has as much support as the latest Elvis sightings) is quite simple: We know where the name I­­esous came from: the Jewish Septuagint! In other words, this was not some later, pagan corruption of the Savior’s name; rather, it was the natural Greek way of rendering the Hebrew/Aramaic name Yeshua at least two centuries before His birth, and it is the form of the name found in more than 5,000 Greek manuscripts of the New Testament. This is saying something! The name I­­esous is also found in Greek writings outside the New Testament and dating to that same general time frame.

Although it is claimed that the Encyclopedia Britannica says that “the name Ieusus (Jesus) is a combination of 2 mythical deities, IEU and SUS (ZEUS, a Greek god)” it actually says no such thing. This is a complete fabrication, intentional or not. In short, as one Jewish believer once stated, “Jesus is as much related to Zeus as Moses is to mice.”

Unfortunately, some popular teachers continue to espouse the Jesus-Zeus connection, and many believers follow the pseudo- scholarship in these fringe, “new revelation” teachings. Not only are these teachings and practices filled with error, but they do not profit in the least. So, to every English-speaking believer I say: Do not be ashamed to use the name JESUS! That is the proper way to say his name in English—just as Michael is the correct English way to say the Hebrew name mi-kha-el and Moses is the correct English way to say the Hebrew name mo-sheh. Pray in Jesus’ name, worship in Jesus’ name, and witness in Jesus’ name. And for those who want to relate to our Messiah’s Jewishness, then refer to him by His original name Yeshua—not Yahshua and not Yahushua—remembering that the power of the name is not in its pronunciation but in the person to whom it refers, our Lord and Redeemer and King.

SOURCE-askdrbrown.org/ask-dr-brown/35-ask-dr-brown/79-what-is-the-original-hebrew-name-for-jesus-and-is-it-true-that-the-name-jesus-greek-isssous-is-really-a-pagan-corruption-of-the-name-zeus


Sent out from Andrew Strom.
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Offline kp  
#2 Posted : Sunday, August 16, 2009 9:16:41 AM(UTC)
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While I agree with Dr. Brown that the "Zeus" connection is ridiculous, he's on thin ice with the denial that "Yah" isn't part of the Messiah's name. Why? Because Yahweh (if you're willing to see it) required this to be so: "Behold, I send a Messenger (Malak) before you to guard you on the way and to bring you to the place that I have prepared. Pay careful attention to him and obey his voice; do not rebel against him, for he will not pardon your transgression, for my name is in him." (Exodus 23:20-21)

As usual, the truth is obvious if you're looking for it and are prepared to see it, and hidden if you're not.

kp

Offline Theophilus  
#3 Posted : Sunday, August 16, 2009 4:19:30 PM(UTC)
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I'm wondering how it is that Michael Brown with his PhD in Semitic languages would differ on Messiah's name? I gather Dr. Brown would recognize the name as it is used in modern Hebrew and that as it was vocalized by the Masorites? Might this be like what Yada was warning us about using Strong's as a primary linguistic tool without recognizing that at its foundation it assumes that the document it was made to support is correctly rendered?

I suspect that some Messianic Jews seek to side with their Rabbinical counterparts on any areas where they can an d in so doing would assume that Mosorite based Hebrew language conventions are similarly correct? In either case, Dr Brown violates the basic language rue of transliterating a proper name as it sounds in the original language, not after a few successive transliterations.
Offline Robskiwarrior  
#4 Posted : Sunday, August 16, 2009 11:16:34 PM(UTC)
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KP I also completely agree this whole Zeus thing doesn't not help the "cause"

And Theo - Again precisely right.

My thoughts are - surely a guy with a PHD in languages knows what is meant to happen - then surely he is either 1) too blind by religion - 2) too comfortable - either way his PHD is now a joke.
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Offline Matthew  
#5 Posted : Monday, August 17, 2009 2:47:38 AM(UTC)
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...and I say this as someone holding a Ph.D. in Semitic languages.

All the more reason not to trust him.
Offline James  
#6 Posted : Monday, August 17, 2009 7:30:22 AM(UTC)
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What gets me is, if he is so sure that his name was Yeshua if he is any kind of intellectually honest linguistic scholar, why would he insist upon a transliteration, of a transliteration, of a transliteration, of a transliteration, of a transliteration,of a transliteration rather than just calling him Yeshua. This tells me that he is more interested in justifying Jesus then intellectual honesty.

Edited by user Monday, August 17, 2009 8:55:40 AM(UTC)  | Reason: Not specified

Don't take my word for it, Look it up.

“The truth is not for all men but only for those who seek it.” ― Ayn Rand
Offline Theophilus  
#7 Posted : Monday, August 17, 2009 1:45:55 PM(UTC)
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Matthew wrote:
All the more reason not to trust him.



That's what I'm getting at. As PhD in languages, I'm supposing that Dr. Brown is not inventing Yashu'a. I'm sure that he's using the linguistic tools or references that he wastaught to trust by fellow academics. What I'm questioning is whether the sources that he's accurately using have been shaped / corrupted by the Masorites. Surely the Masorites who consistently avoid using Yahuweh's name would avoid incorporating it into both the son of Nun's name which is coincidentally the same as the Messiah's.
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