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Offline Heretic Steve  
#1 Posted : Thursday, October 25, 2007 10:25:43 AM(UTC)
Heretic Steve
Joined: 9/26/2007(UTC)
Posts: 258
Location: ohio

In my efforts to explain that christianity is a manmade religion and that the name jesus christ is a human construct as well, it would be very helpful if I knew when "gesus" and "chrio" were first entered into the greek scrip and by whom. In other words, a timeline/evolution of the name of jesus christ and exactly who was responsible. When I tell others that His name is Yahshua and not jc, I always am asked,"how do I know this". I try to explain the Torah refs and the RC corruptions. Yet, without some sort of verification of the RC corruptions, most of what I say falls on deaf ears. 'Course, this is the usual response in any case regarding YY/FH, however, with an evo/timeline/ and 'who did it' supporting evidence, (and a credible source), it would be harder to refute the name issue.
TIA
If not us, who? If not now, when?
Offline Truth Seeker  
#2 Posted : Sunday, March 23, 2008 9:16:48 PM(UTC)
Truth Seeker
Joined: 2/24/2008(UTC)
Posts: 20
Man
Location: Wisconsin

Jesus is a modern name.It couldn't be accurate because the letter "j" is a more recent addition to the alphabet.
I linked a website that has encyclopedia information on the letter.
Hope it helps.

No J in Hebrew
Offline Robskiwarrior  
#3 Posted : Monday, March 24, 2008 12:07:40 AM(UTC)
Robskiwarrior
Joined: 7/4/2007(UTC)
Posts: 1,470
Man
Location: England

Was thanked: 1 time(s) in 1 post(s)
Personally I would steer clear of the "Gesus" link - I have not found enough evidence for that. Gesus was supposedly a european god of the forest - I have no links or back up for that fact.

Jesus is just a bad translation of a translation of a translation that should never have been translated. Explain a little about transliteration - give examples of people you know who have names that are not in your native tongue. A good one that myself and Swalchy use is Esteban, because it means Stephen in our language - yet we do not call our friend Stephen, because that is not his name.

You could explain how the name Jesus did not appear until the 2nd edition of the KJV of the bible, and im sure Swalchy knows the date for that - but off the top of my head in feeling around 1649 for some reason LOL (dont trust me with numbers, im pants... :P)

You can point in a strongs dictionary to the fact that Joshua is the correct translation into english of the name Yahushua, and if they have a perfectly good translation - why dont they use it? You can also point out that there was a "Jesus Son of Nun" in the earlyer KJV of the bible and that was changed to Joshua - but not the actual name of the Messiah - why?

There are many things more than that, but I hope that my little bit will help you remeber things or help someone else point you to good solid facts :D
Signature Updated! Woo that was old...
Offline Robskiwarrior  
#4 Posted : Monday, March 24, 2008 1:00:31 AM(UTC)
Robskiwarrior
Joined: 7/4/2007(UTC)
Posts: 1,470
Man
Location: England

Was thanked: 1 time(s) in 1 post(s)
woohoo only 20 years out - thats not bad for me :D I will remember that now :D
Signature Updated! Woo that was old...
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